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« Justice Breyer robbed by machete-wielding perp | Main | SAF collects another check »

If a robber uses a gun, his victim will just take it away and use it on him

Posted by David Hardy · 14 February 2012 09:29 AM

Another case of that occurring. I cannot recall reading of a robbery victim being disarmed by the aggressor, but have read of several cases where the robber was disarmed by the victim. I attribute this disparity to (1) robbery victims are more intelligent than robbers, and (2) they are less likely to be under the influence of narcotics.

· Self defense

2 Comments | Leave a comment

Barron Barnett | February 14, 2012 10:09 AM | Reply

I attribute it to the fact that it places the robber in a reactive state. They do not expect an armed victim. Even less do they expect the victim to fight back.

Both of your points are very valid as well. I have to agree though I haven't heard of a victim being disarmed during a robbery after a draw. I've only heard of this incident where it was taken while the carrier was in condition white.

Clayton E. Cramer | February 14, 2012 11:28 AM | Reply

The recent Cato paper by me and Dave Burnett, Tough Targets, found 227 instances of victims disarming the criminal (often with the victim starting the encounter unarmed), and 11 instances of criminals disarming victims.

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