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« Zero tolerance, zero brains | Main | Supreme Court denies review in Olofson case »

How many commas does the Second Amendment have?

Posted by David Hardy · 12 October 2009 02:45 PM

An interesting question. They didn't have photocopiers back in 1789, and when clerks copied the Bill of Rights they punctuated and capitalized as they please.

· Second Amendment wording

8 Comments | Leave a comment

David E. Young | October 12, 2009 3:32 PM | Reply

This issue was discussed from a historical perspective in Commas and the Original Version of the Second Amendment at On Second Opinion blog - this URL:

http://onsecondopinion.blogspot.com/2009/02/commas-and-original-version-of-second.html#comments

The developmental history of the Second Amendment makes its intent clear in spite of how many or few commas were inserted in predecessor language and ratified vesions. However, those who are not happy with what the Second Amendment states might very well make use of this variety of commas in order to cast doubt on what is clear.

I am somewhat surpised that Thomas Jefferson's Official Imprint of the amendments proposed by Congress and adopted by the state legislatures was not mentioned or quoted in Mr. Davies' article. Here is the first Secretary of State's printing of what he authenticated as ratified:

ARTICLE THE FOURTH
A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."
[The Founders' View of the Right to Bear Arms, p.222]

Read the period historical sources. You will never regret having done so. As a bonus, they were written in English, so you don't even have to learn a foreign language.

jnheath | October 12, 2009 6:06 PM | Reply


As many as David E. Young says it has.

Graystar | October 13, 2009 1:07 AM | Reply

The commas don't matter at all. The right to keep and bear arms existed before the creation of the Constitution and the Bill of Rights. The Second Amendment does not create the right it protects...it only recognizes it. Therefore, its wording cannot possibly define, limit, or expand the meaning of the right to keep and bear arms.

Robert | October 13, 2009 9:34 AM | Reply

Anyone who bites on an argument about commas in the 2nd is going to have grammatical orgasms over deciphering what's in (and out) of any of the following bills: TARP. 2009 Budget, Stimulus package, Cap and trade, Health care reform. et.

fwb | October 13, 2009 9:54 AM | Reply

Actually the commas occur in the copies that were READ out loud. Commas are used to mark pauses while reading so those copying can catch up.

They DID NOT capitalize and add commas as they please. Most people today are IGNORANT about the English language and proper grammar/punctuation.

A mind is a terrible thing to waste.

Freakin DUH!!!


Tiocfaidh ar la!!

30yearProf | October 13, 2009 10:28 AM | Reply

Consistent with Jefferson's Official Imprint, the Statutes at Large (since the beginning in the 1850's) use the SINGLE COMMA version.

Grammatically only the single comma version makes any sense. The multiple comma version is acceptable (thanks FWB) ONLY if the commas are viewed as pauses in dictation and little more.

Jefferson was alive at the time of its drafting and probably knew the current usage (it was HIS too). The grammarians in the 1850's who put together the first volume of the Statutes at Large probably had a better view of eighteenth century usage that we do 150 years later in the era of radio and television. They would never have used "cool" to mean "neat" or, rather, "nicely done."

Tom | October 13, 2009 3:56 PM | Reply

one. two. CRUNCH!

The world may never know.

W. W Woodward | October 13, 2009 8:02 PM | Reply

Commas?

Every version of the 2nd Amendment I've ever seen has but one period. It's located immediately after the word "infringed". That period cannot be debated.

[W-III]

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